Is drunken sex a crime if both parties are both equally shitfaced and there was no physical/forcible element involved?
http://www.ndaa.org/pdf/pub_prosecuting_alcohol_facilitated_sexual_assault.pdfPage 8 of this article/study (page 16 of the PDF) starts the discussion of the difference between "drunken sex" and rape. Although relatively long, this document does a pretty good job at detailing how prosecutors would have to approach such a case.
However, the double standard is still painfully obvious. References to the victim always refer to "she" and "her." Then again, the reason for the double standard is relatively logical: unless a woman feeds a man Viagra, it's highly unlikely that a man could be raped during traditional vaginal sex.
Of course, I understand the argument that if a woman can be too drunk to consent, then so can a man even if he is erect. Afterall, we're not judging the woman's consent based on whether she was physically aroused, but simply by the fact that she was too drunk to legally consent.
But because it's often difficult to prove after the fact whether a person was drunk and exactly how drunk, we're stuck with having to partially rely on the basic biological fact that a man has to be aroused to achieve penetration (suggesting consent), whereas a woman does not have to be aroused. And in such cases where the woman is alleging rape and thus wouldn't be aroused, there would usually be physical evidence of forced penetration, as that document discusses.
There are also instances in which people report becoming involuntarily aroused during rape, so there is another problem. And not all women who are subjected to vaginal intercourse without arousal will show signs of forced penetration. So it's a very difficult issue to address all around, and I think there are problems for both genders, although males likely do get the shaft more often (no pun intended...probably).