My understanding of this thread was that a video of the kick catch in question was posted and it was asked, "Was it a bad call?"
There is nothing from the game or from the ref's explanation to the coach (at least from what I've heard concerning that explanation) that indicated it was ever about whether Rainey called for a fair catch. The issue was whether he had "opportunity" to catch the ball. If he didn't have an opportunity, then that means someone interfered.
Early on in this thread, it was suggested that the refs not calling interference would have been a bad call if the fair catch was signaled earlier, but that it wasn't a bad call because the fair catch was signaled "late." This point was erroneous for two reasons: 1) As long as the ball is still in the air, a fair catch can be signaled; nothing in the rule indicates that you have to call it within a specific time frame. 2) Interference with the catch of a kick is interference with the catch of a kick. It doesn't matter whether the player signaled a fair catch or not; he is to be afforded an opportunity to catch any and all kicks without interference, fair catch signal or not.
Based on all of this, my understanding is that the "call" that was brought into question in this thread was concerning the non-call of interference. The whole fair catch issue was, in fact, not relevant at all. These two rules are, as Pell City stated, completely different rules that don't affect one another. But many were mistakenly including the fair catch rule in the conversation thinking that it had some effect on the interference call:
The reason it was not called was because of the late fair catch call.
But had he indicated fair catch earlier and OM got that close, I think they would have called it.
But even if that was the case (which would be stupid if true), the fact that he didn't call the fair catch until after the tackler was already in motion to tackle him should have made it clean even if he hit him, no?
The Florida players hand did not go above his helmet to indicate a fair catch. That, my friends, is an invalid signal according to the rule book. The linesman even showed Boom why that call was made.
The correct call was made - Tiger ball at the point of the recovery.
If there's some misunderstanding regarding the meaning of these posts, then please to be explainin. But I think it's pretty reasonable based upon the wording of these posts for myself and RWS to assume that several of you were claiming that the "late" fair catch signal was the reason why an interference call wasn't made.
As much as I love disagreeing with Bama fans, those posts, to me, look very much like several of you were jumbling the two rules by concluding that his failure at "timely" and "clearly" calling a fair catch somehow related to why an interference call wasn't made.
I'm not saying...I'm just saying...